Internal Medicine Book | Prometric Exam Questions 2025

PROMETRIC EXAM MCQ MATERIAL FOR DHA -MOH -HAAD (DoH) -DHCC -SMLE – SCHFS– OMSB – QCHP – NHRA – KMLE

Internal Medicine Prometric Exam MCQ 2024

Product Details – 2024 Edition

Hard Copy Book

• Paperback: 1316 pages (2 Volumes)
• Total Questions: 2250
• Practice Tests: 10
• Printing: Black and White
• Product Weight: 4 KG
• Product Dimensions: 8.5 x 4 x 11.5 inches

Online Subscription (Instant Access)

• Price: 139$
• Total Questions: 2250
• Practice Tests: 11
• Validity: 8 Months from the date of purchase

• Explanations: Detailed Explanations for effective learning
• Update Frequency: Every Year
• Success Rate: Over 80%
• Source: Previous exams and, All topic wise questions
• Topics: For all Prometric Exams in Gulf Countries
• Recommendation: Most recommended book for all Prometric Exam
• Language: English
• Publisher: Medical Exam Books – Rapid Access Guide Publishers™
• ISBN: 978-81-970825-6-6

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1) A 47-year-old female with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus, for which she has been on prednisone 10 mg orally daily for the last year, also with history of a lower gastrointestinal bleed and hypertension, has had chronic left hip pain and has been diagnosed with osteonecrosis of the femoral head. Conservative therapy has been ineffective, and she is now scheduled for a left total hip arthroplasty.

Which of the following perioperative recommendations regarding glucocorticoids in this patient is most appropriate?
A. She does not need any glucocorticoids perioperatively
B. She should continue her home dose of glucocorticoids perioperatively
C. She should receive 50 mg of hydrocortisone IV every 8 hours the day before, the day of, and then the day after surgery, after which she should continue her home dose of glucocorticoids
D. She should undergo an ACTH stimulation test, and only if it indicates adrenal suppression should the patient receive perioperative glucocorticoid coverage beyond her usual glucocorticoid dose

Correct Answer: D.

2) A 44-year-old man on long-term dialysis for lupus nephritis presents with progressive dyspnea on exertion. He has no chest pain or lower extremity edema. His neck veins are elevated, and the elevation increases upon inspiration. Lungs are clear. Cardiovascular examination reveals an extra sound in early diastole, and there is no paradoxical pulse.

What would be the definitive diagnostic workup for this patient?
A. High-resolution chest CT
B. Transthoracic echocardiogram
C. Right and left cardiac catheterization
D. A and C

Correct Answer: D. The patient most likely has constrictive pericarditis. Definitive diagnosis requires demonstration of a thickened pericardium and equalization of right and left heart pressures. Elevated central venous pressures without signs of congestive heart failure are characteristic.

3) A 45-year-old woman with a history of malaise, weight loss, and recurrent upper respiratory infections was picnicking with friends. Most picnickers developed a pruritic, erythematous skin reaction after contact with poison ivy, but she did not.

What is the most likely reason for this patient’s failure to develop a reaction?
A. She had anergy related to weight loss
B. She had impaired T cell immunity due to undiagnosed AIDS
C. She had not been previously exposed to the allergen found in poison ivy
D. She was wearing sunscreen, which formed a barrier to the allergen

Correct Answer: C. The patient had not been previously exposed to the allergen. Poison ivy causes a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which requires prior sensitization to the allergen.

4) A 21-year-old man has experienced low back pain for the past 5 months. The pain wakes him at night but improves with activity. He has stiffness lasting 1 hour in the morning, and right groin pain of similar character. He also reports prior Achilles tendonitis.

Which is the best next step in management?
A. Determine erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. Evaluate for HLA-B27 gene
C. Perform bone scan of the spine and pelvis
D. Perform CT scan of the sacroiliac joints

Correct Answer: D. The patient’s presentation suggests ankylosing spondylitis. CT scan of the sacroiliac joints can demonstrate early bony and cartilage changes not visible on regular x-rays.

5) A 40-year-old man complains of generalized weakness, weight loss, abdominal pain, and joint pain. He also has mild diabetes and a family history of liver disease. Examination shows diffuse hyperpigmentation, palpable liver edge, and wrist arthritis.

What is the best diagnostic test?
A. Complete blood count with differential and metabolic panel
B. Hemoglobin A1C
C. Iron, total iron-binding capacity, and ferritin
D. Alpha-1-antitrypsin level

Correct Answer: C. The patient likely has hereditary hemochromatosis. Screening involves transferrin saturation and ferritin levels. Elevated transferrin saturation (>50% in men, >40% in women) and ferritin (>300 ng/mL) suggest the diagnosis.

6) All of the following are risk factors for venous thromboembolism, except:
A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B. Atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease
C. Shoveling heavy snow
D. Chronic kidney disease

Correct Answer: C. Physical exertion such as shoveling snow is not a recognized risk factor for venous thromboembolism.

7) A 60-year-old woman with a 20-year history of diabetes presents with gradual-onset blurred vision over months. She has background retinopathy and HbA1c between 7.6–8.2% for the last 8 years. Funduscopic examination shows microaneurysms and cotton wool spots.

What is the most likely cause of her visual symptoms?
A. Retinal detachments
B. Vitreous hemorrhage
C. Macular edema
D. Cataracts

Correct Answer: C. Macular edema is the most common cause of visual impairment in diabetic retinopathy.

8) An 80-year-old woman has been housebound for years and recently fell, fracturing her left hip. She had a waddling gait, bone pain, and required walking aids.

What is the single most likely explanation for her problems?
A. Arrested bone development
B. Increased bone turnover
C. Multiple bone cysts
D. Normal amount of bone but low mineral content

Correct Answer: D. Osteomalacia — poor mineralization of bone due to vitamin D deficiency — causes bone pain, proximal myopathy, and fractures.

9) A 68-year-old woman with acute swollen and painful left knee is receiving antibiotics and awaiting washout under anesthesia. Her urine output drops to 10 mL in 4 hours, and there is oozing from the cannula site.

What is the most appropriate step before proceeding with surgery?
A. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) 300 mL IV STAT
B. Gentamicin 4 mg/kg IV STAT
C. Hemodialysis
D. Insertion of CVP line

Correct Answer: A. The patient has septic arthritis with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Coagulation defects should be corrected with FFP before surgery.

10) A 24-year-old woman presents with 48-hour abdominal pain and nausea. Her last menstrual period was 3 days ago and normal. Abdomen is soft but tender in the right iliac fossa, with no guarding or rebound tenderness.

Which additional finding best supports the diagnosis?
A. Cervical excitation
B. Pause in inspiration on palpation of right upper quadrant
C. Right renal angle tenderness
D. Tender lymph nodes palpable in the neck

Correct Answer: D. Tender cervical lymph nodes and a recent upper respiratory infection suggest mesenteric adenitis, not appendicitis.

Book Description

Internal Medicine Prometric Exam MCQ has been developed by our professional team; Rapid Access Guide is the best seller book for all Gulf Countries Exams since 2000. It has an array of all topics; thousands of updated questions with correct answers and explanations certainly will help you to pass the exam at the very first attempt.

Job Application – General overview

There are many hospitals and Clinics in gulf Countries that have a Physician Internal Medicine specialty. You need to pass the Prometric exams to apply for a job in gulf countries. Generally, the minimum experience required is three years. You can visit the respective Health Authority websites to find the eligibility criteria. Once you have passed the exam, you can contact them for a job interview—some of them recruiting directly, and many of them taking interviews online.

The Prometric Application and Dataflow process is the most important factor while doing registration. Finishing it without any mistakes is very important, or it will lead to the rejection of the application. Dataflow takes typically 30 to 45 days to issue the report. You can proceed with the exam booking if it is a positive report. If it is a negative dataflow report, you can still contact them for re-evaluation. If it is a genuine reason, they will verify your certificate again. Meanwhile, Rapid Access Guide Publishers are providing the Prometric Exam booking and Dataflow process on behalf of you.

The below documents are required for proceeding with the exam booking process.

• A recent photograph (passport size)
• Copy of your valid passport.
• Your educational qualification certificates.
• Your experience certificates.
• Practice license or registration (From your Home / Working country)
• The Good Standing Certificate (GSC)
• A medical fitness test in case the applicant is aged 65 and above.

This MCQ-based Reviewer book is beneficial for the following Prometric exams.

1. DHA(DOH) Exam – Dubai Health Authority. (Dubai Prometric)
2. MOH Exam– Ministry of Health, Sharjah, UAE. (Sharjah Prometric)
3. DHCC Exam – Dubai Healthcare city.
4. HAAD Exam– Health Authority of Abu Dhabi. (Pearson VUE Test)
5. NHRA Exam – National Health Regulatory Authority, Bahrain.
6. QCHP Exam – Qatar Council for Healthcare Practitioners. (Qatar Prometric)
7. SMLE Exam – Saudi Medical Licensing Exam. (Saudi Prometric)
8. OMSB Exam – Oman Medical Specialty Board. (Oman Prometric)
9. KMLE Exam – Kuwait Medical Licensing Exam – Kuwait

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