Emergency Medicine MCQ Book | Prometric Exam Questions – 2025

PROMETRIC EXAM MCQ MATERIAL FOR DHA -MOH -HAAD (DoH) -DHCC -SMLE – SCHFS– OMSB – QCHP – NHRA – KMLE

Emergency Medicine Prometric Exam MCQ 2025

Product Details – 2025 Edition

Hard Copy Book

• Paperback: 793 pages
• Total Questions: 2000
• Practice Tests: 10
• Printing: Black and White
• Product Weight: 2 KG
• Product Dimensions: 8.5 x 2.1 x 11.5 inches

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• Price: 69$
• Total Questions: 2000
• Practice Tests: 9
• Validity: 8 Months from the date of purchase

• Explanations: Detailed Explanations for effective learning
• Update Frequency: Every Year
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• Source: Previous exams and, All topic wise questions
• Topics: For all Prometric Exams in Gulf Countries
• Recommendation: Most recommended book for all Prometric Exam
• Language: English
• Publisher: Medical Exam Books – Rapid Access Guide Publishers™
• ISBN: 978-81-948196-8-4

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Best Emergency Medicine Prometric Exam MCQs 2025

1) An 83-year-old woman presents with 30 minutes of left-sided weakness that started suddenly while she was on the phone. On exam, her blood pressure is 200/110, she has moderate weakness on her left face and left upper extremity, and she only pays attention to you if you are standing to her right. CT of the head is normal. Glucose, platelets, and coagulation studies are normal. By history she has no risk factors for bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Aspirin, no lowering of blood pressure
B. Careful lowering of blood pressure, aspirin
C. Careful lowering of blood pressure followed by thrombolysis
D. Careful lowering of blood pressure, no thrombolysis

Correct Answer: C. This patient meets all criteria for thrombolysis with rtPA (based on the National Institute for Neurological Disorders [NINDS] trial) except for a blood pressure that is mildly higher than the upper limit (185/110) that is acceptable for thrombolysis. In such a case, the blood pressure should be gently lowered to facilitate thrombolysis. Importantly, we know with certainty that the patient’s stroke began within the last 3 hours, a crucial factor in determining eligibility for thrombolysis; of note, though, a recent study European Cooperative Acute Stroke Study (ECASS III) showed a benefit for rtPA in the 3–4.5 hours window, so the acceptable time from symptom onset may be changing soon. Giving aspirin and not lowering blood pressure is a reasonable choice given the mixed evidence and controversies surrounding thrombolysis, but expert guidelines and standard of care would dictate thrombolysis in this case. If thrombolysis is not performed for any reason, then blood pressure should not be lowered unless it is greater than 220 mm Hg systolic or 120 mm Hg diastolic.

2) Which of the following is true about neonatal seizures?
A. They are usually absence seizures
B. They are most often due to hyponatremia
C. Treatment with barbiturates is avoided
D. They tend to be more subtle than seizures in older children and adults

Correct Answer: D. Neonatal seizures are often subtle, with less motor activity than seizures that occur in older children or adults. Seizures may involve sucking or chewing, lip-smacking, random and unusual eye movements, rowing, swimming or leg pedaling movements, and unusual sounds. They may be associated with apnea. This constellation of signs is formally referred to as “subtle” seizures as opposed to more traditional generalized tonic-clonic events. Absence seizures don’t typically occur until age 4. Seizures can be due to hyponatremia in which case congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) should be considered. Barbiturates have long been the first-line therapy for neonatal seizures although there is no evidence that one particular antiepileptic agent is better than another.

3) A 26-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant presents after feeling a gush of fluid after her yoga class and is concerned that her water has broken. Which of the following is true regarding confirmation of rupture of membranes?
A. A digital exam should be performed for confirmation.
B. Amniotic fluid has a pH of 4.5–5.5 and turns the nitrazine strip yellow
C. False-positive tests can occur with the presence of Trichomonas vaginalis.
D. Lubricant should be used during the sterile speculum exam to decrease patient discomfort.

Correct Answer: C. Amniotic fluid has a pH of 7.0–7.4 and will turn nitrazine paper blue. False-positive tests can occur with blood, lubricant, the presence of T. vaginalis, semen, or cervical mucus. Once membranes have broken, digital examination should be avoided because there is an increased risk of infection after even a single digital examination. Thick brownish green fluid is not a normal finding in amniotic fluid and is consistent with meconium. This should alert the physician of possible fetal complications from meconium aspiration.

4) A 75-year-old male with a history of hypertension, diabetes, and ischemic stroke causing mild residual left-sided hemiparesis presents with sudden onset of complete left-sided arm and leg paralysis with mild confusion. The symptoms occurred 1 hour prior to arrival. His vital signs are 98.5°F, 75, 16, 168/92, 99% RA. Physical examination reveals a regular heart rhythm and 0/5 strength on the left side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. EKG
B. Blood glucose level
C. PO aspirin
D. IV tissue plasminogen activator (TPA)

Correct Answer: B. The patient presents with a focal neurologic deficit in the setting of pre-existing residual stroke symptoms. The differential diagnosis includes not only stroke but also any process that can disrupt the metabolic supply-demand balance for nutrients or oxygen, including hypoglycemia or infection. More than three-quarters of all strokes are ischemic and can be treated within 3 hours (4.5 hours in selected cases) with IV TPA. However, differentiating ischemic stroke from hemorrhagic stroke is difficult without neuroimaging. The most important initial test, therefore, is non-contrast CT of the brain. However, among the answer choices, the only choice that can be easily performed and would change immediate management in this clinical setting is checking the blood glucose level. While obtaining an EKG is important, it is unlikely to reveal findings that will change immediate management. Oral aspirin and IV TPA should never be given before hemorrhagic stroke is excluded. An arterial blood gas is rarely required in the evaluation of focal neurologic deficit.

5) Which of the following is the most common cause of death among nursing home residents?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Pneumonia
C. Urosepsis
D. Massive stroke

Correct Answer: B. Pneumonia is the most common cause of death among residents of long-term care facilities. It is also the most common reason for transfer to such a facility. As with many other diseases, the clinical presentation of pneumonia in the elderly may be very vague or atypical. Frequently, elderly patients may lack fever, cough, chest pain, headache, and myalgias. They may also not be strong enough or oriented enough to vocalize complaints about dyspnea. Studies have revealed that in general, elderly persons manifest fewer overall symptoms than do their younger cohort in the setting of pneumonia. S. pneumoniae remains the most common pathogen in both community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and in pneumonia acquired in a nursing home setting. Although the etiology of nursing home-acquired pneumonia is often undetermined, the microbiology more closely resembles CAP than nosocomial pneumonia. Interestingly, the risk of invasive pneumococcal disease is fourfold higher in the nursing home population than in elderly persons living in the community. Although its efficacy has not been 100% validated, most authors agree that all patients of long-term care facilities should be vaccinated against both influenza and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

6) Which of the following is true regarding aspirin-induced asthma (AlA)?
A. It accounts for half of all asthmatics
B. Children are more commonly affected than adults
C. Males are more commonly affected than females
D. It is a common precipitant of severe, life-threatening asthma

Correct Answer: D. Although there is variability in the reported incidence of aspirin-induced asthma (AlA), recent studies estimate that its incidence is 3% to 5% in asthmatics. Overall, it accounts for 10% to 15% of asthmatics. The actual prevalence is likely a bit higher because many asthmatics fail to recognize mild aspirin-related symptoms or purposely avoid aspirin-containing products after becoming aware of potentially adverse complications without conveying this to their physicians. Diagnosis is made through aspirin-provocation tests after patients present with asthmatic symptoms associated with aspirin use. It is far more common in adult asthmatics than in children with asthma and is more common in women than men. After ingesting acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), asthmatics may experience an acute exacerbation of symptoms within 3 hours that is frequently accompanied by profuse rhinorrhea, conjunctival injection, periorbital edema, and occasionally facial flushing. Unfortunately, bronchoconstriction may be severe and life-threatening, requiring mechanical ventilation. Compared with all patients presenting with asthma exacerbations, aspirin-induced asthmatics more frequently require intubation and mechanical ventilation. Wegener’s granulomatosis is an antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)-associated small vessel vasculitis that most commonly affects the lungs and kidneys, but is not associated with AlA.

7) A concerned mother brings her 15-year-old daughter to the ED with a chief complaint of irregular vaginal bleeding. The patient experienced menarche at age 13 and has never had regular periods. Recently, the bleeding has been heavier and more irregular than normal. She reports no history of easy bruising and has no petechiae on examination. Her hemoglobin is 11 g/dL. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Anovulation
C. Endometriosis
D. Asymptomatic Chlamydia infection

Correct Answer: B. This patient has dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB), which is defined as excessive, prolonged, or erratic uterine bleeding that is not related to an underlying anatomic uterine defect or systemic disease. Therefore, DUB is a diagnosis of exclusion. However, anovulation is by far the most common cause of irregular vaginal bleeding in an adolescent. Although anovulatory menstrual cycles are most common in the first 2 to 3 years after menarche, it may take up to 6 years before most cycles become ovulatory. Oral contraceptive pills are very effective for the management of DUB. Nearly any regimen can be used, and the most common involves combination oral contraceptives (containing both estrogen and progesterone) with at least 30 to 35 mg of ethinyl estradiol. The pills are initially used four times daily in women with more extensive bleeding (and concomitantly low hemoglobin levels) and are gradually tapered by one pill every 3 days until only one pill is being used on a daily basis. Antiemetics may be needed due to the nausea that is a frequent side effect of high-dose estrogen therapy. In addition, iron supplementation should be used to boost red blood cell production.

8) A first-time mother presents with her 13-day-old infant with a chief complaint of seizures. The infant had an uncomplicated term delivery, is afebrile and had been well until the day of presentation. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this infant’s seizures?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypomagnesemia

Correct Answer: B. In a well newborn beyond the immediate neonatal period, without fever, hyponatremia is the most common cause of seizures. Water intoxication is the most common cause of hyponatremia during infancy. Infants are unable to adequately concentrate urine so parents who dilute formula or give their infants tap water put their infants at risk. Hypocalcemia is also a very common cause of seizures in the neonate, so serum calcium levels should be checked. In fact, all infants have a slight decline in serum calcium levels with a nadir at 24 to 48 hours. Symptomatic hypocalcemia is more common in infants of diabetic mothers, preterm infants, or infants with a history of anoxic encephalopathy. Hypomagnesemia is not as common as hypocalcemia, but symptoms of hypomagnesemia mimic those of hypocalcemia and it is difficult to correct hypocalcemia if the serum magnesium is also low. Therefore, infants with seizures should have a comprehensive evaluation of their electrolytes. Hypokalemia is uncommon in infancy and does not typically cause seizures. Maple syrup urine disease is a rare disease resulting from the inability to catabolize branched chain amino acids. Infants typically present between 4 to 7 days of life with poor feeding, vomiting, or lethargy. Neurologic manifestations rapidly develop, such as alternating hypotonia and hypertonia, dystonia, seizures, and encephalopathy.

9) A 4-month-old male infant presents with mild abdominal distension, pencil-thin stools, failure to thrive, and bilious vomiting. Digital rectal examination reveals an empty rectal vault. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these symptoms?
A. Intussusception
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
D. Hirschsprung’s disease

Correct Answer: D. Hirschsprung’s disease accounts for roughly 20% of cases of partial intestinal obstruction in early infancy. Although intussusception is the most common cause of intestinal obstruction in children younger than 2 years old, the typical presentation is one of acute-onset, severe abdominal pain which may be associated with vomiting and bloody stools. Patients with pyloric stenosis present with progressive non-bilious projectile emesis. Patients with GERD do not develop signs of obstruction and most commonly have nonbilious emesis. Hirschsprung’s disease is usually diagnosed in the newborn nursery due to the failure of newborns to pass meconium. Ninety-nine percent of full-term infants pass meconium within 48 hours of birth. However, because there is a spectrum of disease, some infants may present in a delayed manner and may have a subtle presentation. The absence of stool in the rectal vault in concert with signs and symptoms of obstruction should bring about consideration of Hirschsprung’s disease. Diagnosis is first suspected through an abnormal “string sign” on barium enema. This is followed by a rectal biopsy revealing the aganglionic segment of the bowel responsible for the disease.

10) A 19-year-old female, accompanied by her college roommate, presents to the emergency room for evaluation of “an eating problem.” The patient’s roommate states that the already thin patient began losing excessive weight after she decided to become a vegetarian because she thought she “was too fat” 2 months ago. The patient is awake and alert, but is a reluctant historian, though she willingly came to the ED for evaluation. She is self-described “perfectionist.” Her vitals are T 97.6°F, P 42, RR 16, BP 90/58. She is 5 ft 6 in tall and weighs 43 kg (95 lb), which puts her in the third percentile for weight based on her age and gender. An EKG reveals sinus bradycardia. Which of the following is the next best step in her evaluation and management?
A. Initiation of paroxetine (Paxil) and referral to an outpatient psychiatrist
B. Completion of involuntary commitment paperwork since she is starving herself to death
C. Referral for outpatient cognitive–behavioral psychotherapy
D. Admission to the hospital for emergent refeeding

Correct Answer: D. This patient is presenting with profound weight loss due to anorexia nervosa. There are both psychiatric and medical indications for admission of patients with anorexia nervosa. The psychiatric indication for admission is primarily limited to those patients who have a high degree of suicidality, or active suicidality, or comorbid depression that may interfere with their ability to comply with treatment. Medical indications for admission are described by both the Society for Adolescent Medicine and the APA, and include body weight <75% of average body weight for age, height, and gender, bradycardia <50 or any significant arrhythmia, hypotension (<80/50), hypothermia (<96°F), severe orthostatic changes, severe electrolyte disturbances (e.g., severe hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, or hypomagnesemia), or other medical complications of anorexia, including pancreatitis, heart failure, syncope, or seizures. Committing a patient to inpatient therapy may be needed if they refuse admission, but this patient arrived willingly and has given no indication that she intends to refuse therapy.

Emergency Medicine Prometric Exam MCQ 2025 has been developed by our professional team; Rapid Access Guide is the best seller book for all Gulf Countries Exams since 2000. It has an array of all topics; thousands of updated questions with correct answers and explanations certainly will help you to pass the exam at the very first attempt.

Job Application – General overview

There are many hospitals and Clinics in gulf Countries that have an Emergency Medicine specialty. You need to pass the Prometric exams to apply for a job in gulf countries. Generally, the minimum experience required is three years. You can visit the respective Health Authority websites to find the eligibility criteria. Once you have passed the exam, you can contact them for a job interview—some of them recruiting directly, and many of them taking interviews online.

The Prometric Application and Dataflow process is the most important factor while doing registration. Finishing it without any mistakes is very important, or it will lead to the rejection of the application. Dataflow takes typically 30 to 45 days to issue the report. You can proceed with the exam booking if it is a positive report. If it is a negative dataflow report, you can still contact them for re-evaluation. If it is a genuine reason, they will verify your certificate again. Meanwhile, Rapid Access Guide Publishers are providing the Prometric Exam booking and Dataflow process on behalf of you.

The below documents are required for proceeding with the exam booking process.

• A recent photograph (passport size)
• Copy of your valid passport.
• Your educational qualification certificates.
• Your experience certificates.
• Practice license or registration (From your Home / Working country)
• The Good Standing Certificate (GSC)
• A medical fitness test in case the applicant is aged 65 and above.

This MCQ-based Reviewer book is beneficial for the following Prometric exams.

1. DHA(DOH) Exam – Dubai Health Authority. (Dubai Prometric)
2. MOH Exam– Ministry of Health, Sharjah, UAE. (Sharjah Prometric)
3. DHCC Exam – Dubai Healthcare city.
4. HAAD Exam– Health Authority of Abu Dhabi. (Pearson VUE Test)
5. NHRA Exam – National Health Regulatory Authority, Bahrain.
6. QCHP Exam – Qatar Council for Healthcare Practitioners. (Qatar Prometric)
7. SMLE Exam – Saudi Medical Licensing Exam. (Saudi Prometric)
8. OMSB Exam – Oman Medical Specialty Board. (Oman Prometric)
9. KMLE – Kuwait Medical Licensing Exam – Kuwait

You are here: Emergency Medicine Prometric Exam MCQ 2025

If you are looking for a comprehensive resource to help you prepare for your emergency medicine Prometric exam, look no further than the Rapid Access Guide Emergency Medicine MCQ Book. This book contains over 2,000 multiple-choice questions, correct answer with explanations covering all of the major topics you will need to know for the exam. The questions are mixed by topic, so you can focus your studying as per the real exam type strategy. In addition, the book includes detailed explanations for each answer, so you can understand why the correct answer is correct and you learn from your mistakes. With the help of this book, you will be well on your way to acing your Prometric exam and becoming a certified emergency medicine physician.