Radiologist MCQ Book | Prometric Exam Questions – 2025

PROMETRIC EXAM MCQ MATERIAL FOR DHA -MOH -HAAD (DoH) -DHCC -SMLE – SCHFS– OMSB – QCHP – NHRA – KMLE

Radiologist Prometric Exam MCQs Book 2025

Product Details – 2025 Edition

Hard Copy Book

• Paperback: 683 pages
• Total Questions: 2000
• Practice Tests: 8
• Printing: Black and White
• Product Weight: 2 KG
• Product Dimensions: 8.5 x 2 x 11.5 inches

Online Subscription (Instant Access)

• Price: 69$
• Total Questions: 2000
• Practice Tests: 9
• Validity: 8 Months from the date of purchase

• Explanations: With / Without Explanations for effective learning
• Update Frequency: Every Year
• Success Rate: Over 80%
• Source: Previous exams and, All topic wise questions
• Topics: For all Prometric Exams in Gulf Countries
• Recommendation: Most recommended book for all Prometric Exam
• Language: English
• Publisher: Medical Exam Books – Rapid Access Guide Publishers™
• ISBN: 978-81-948196-0-8

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Best Radiologist Prometric Exam MCQs 2025

1) A 25-year-old man presents with a painful knee. A plain film reveals a lucent area with a wide zone of transition in the distal femoral metaphysis. MRI reveals fluid–fluid levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Aneurysmal bone cyst
B. GCT
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Chondroblastoma

Correct Answer: C. The telangiectatic variety of osteosarcoma can show fluid–fluid levels, as can malignant fibrous histiocytoma or other necrotic bone tumors. It is highly vascular, containing necrotic tissue and blood, with tumor only along the periphery and septa, which enhances on MRI—unlike ABC or GCT. Plain film findings include bone expansion and cortical breakthrough. Osteoblastoma usually does not show fluid–fluid levels and is more common in the spine. ABC, GCT, and chondroblastoma have a narrower zone of transition; GCT is subarticular, and chondroblastoma is epiphyseal.

2) In osteoarthritis (OA), which early radiological finding is least likely to indicate progressive disease?

A. Increased uptake on isotope bone scan
B. Grade 1 osteophytosis in the knee
C. Osteochondral defect
D. A focal area of high signal on T2WI and STIR in the subchondral bone

Correct Answer: B. Early grade 1 osteophyte formation is not definitively ‘arthritic’ change and is infrequently associated with progression. Progressive OA is more strongly linked to subchondral bone lesions, increased uptake on bone scan, focal osteochondral defects, and persistent subchondral high signal on MRI.

3) Measures to decrease magnetic susceptibility artifact from a hip prosthesis on MRI include:

A. Use fast spin echo (FSE) imaging rather than GE imaging
B. Choose a higher field strength magnet (3 T instead of 1.5 T)
C. Position the long axis of the prosthesis perpendicular to the main magnetic field
D. Use spectral fat suppression instead of STIR

Correct Answer: A. GE sequences are more sensitive to magnetic susceptibility due to lack of 180° refocusing pulses. FSE/SE sequences reduce dephasing, improving image quality near metal. Higher field strength and spectral fat suppression increase artifact, while positioning parallel to the field reduces it.

4) A patient with HIV presents with knee and ankle pain and swelling, resolving after 4 weeks. Radiographs show only joint effusion. Most likely diagnosis?

A. Septic arthritis
B. Psoriatic arthritis
C. HIV-associated arthritis
D. Acute symmetric polyarthritis

Correct Answer: C. HIV-associated arthritis is oligoarticular, asymmetric, peripheral, and short in duration (1–6 weeks). Radiographs may show effusion only. Acute symmetric polyarthritis mimics RA but lacks rheumatoid factor; psoriatic arthritis is more common in AIDS but typically has skin involvement. Other HIV musculoskeletal complications include periostitis, osteonecrosis, and infections.

5) A 26-year-old man presents with wrist pain and swelling after a fall on an outstretched hand. Lateral radiograph shows posterior dislocation of the capitate relative to the lunate. Most commonly associated fracture?

A. Capitate
B. Lunate
C. Triquetral
D. Scaphoid

Correct Answer: D. This describes a perilunate dislocation. The most common associated fracture is the scaphoid (trans-scaphoid perilunate dislocation). Other carpal bones can also be involved in greater arc injuries. Early radiographic signs include widening of the scaphoid–lunate space (Terry-Thomas sign).

6) A 55-year-old female with pulmonary sarcoidosis presents with hand pain. Which radiographic finding is atypical of skeletal sarcoidosis?

A. Cyst-like radiolucencies
B. Joint space narrowing
C. Bone erosions
D. Subcutaneous soft tissue nodules/mass

Correct Answer: B. Joint space narrowing is unusual in sarcoidosis unless neuropathic changes occur. Typical findings include cyst-like radiolucencies, lace-like bone destruction, bone erosions, and subcutaneous soft tissue masses.

7) A 55-year-old female has episodic swollen red joints and left hip pain. Hand X-rays show bilateral asymmetric disease affecting distal and proximal interphalangeal joints with central erosions and marginal osteophytes. The first carpometacarpal joint shows joint space loss with osteophytes. Left hip shows non-uniform joint space loss and subchondral cysts. Main differential?

A. Psoriatic arthritis
B. Erosive OA
C. Calcium pyrophosphate deposition (CPPD) arthropathy
D. Ankylosing spondylitis

Correct Answer: C. Erosive OA shows typical OA distribution with central erosions (gull-wing appearance). CPPD may mimic OA distribution but does not cause erosions and is usually associated with chondrocalcinosis. Psoriatic arthritis may resemble OA but overall pattern is atypical.

8) A 39-year-old man presents with an enlarging swelling in the lateral calf and numbness of the dorsum of the foot. Ultrasound and MRI show a well-defined, thinly septated cystic lesion near the proximal tibiofibular joint extending into soft tissues, 4 cm in size, without soft tissue enhancement. Most likely diagnosis?

A. Parameniscal cyst
B. Bursitis
C. Focal tenosynovitis
D. Ganglion cyst

Correct Answer: D. This is a ganglion cyst adjacent to the proximal tibiofibular joint causing common peroneal nerve palsy. Parameniscal cysts communicate with meniscal tears and are usually at the lateral knee joint margin. Bursitis and tenosynovitis locations differ.

9) A 30-year-old man presents with backache and morning stiffness. Examination reveals loss of spinal movement, uveitis, and upper zone end-inspiratory fine crepitations. Radiological features of the underlying condition?

A. Romanus lesions are a late feature
B. Syndesmophytes are better depicted on MRI than plain film
C. Ankylosis involves vertebral edges or centre
D. Sacroiliac joint widening is not a feature

Correct Answer: C. This describes ankylosing spondylitis. Ankylosis involves vertebral edges or centre, with bony extension through the disc. Romanus lesions are early changes. Syndesmophytes are better seen on plain film. Sacroiliac joint erosion and widening are early features, progressing to sclerosis and fusion.

10) A 22-year-old male with osteoid osteoma is planned for radiofrequency ablation (RFA). Which statement is true?

A. Up to six repeat procedures may be required
B. Performed under local anaesthetic
C. Biopsy is necessary prior to treatment
D. Complete symptom relief is seen in 90% after initial therapy

Correct Answer: D. CT-guided RFA is safe and effective for osteoid osteoma. Complete symptom relief occurs in ~90% after initial therapy, approaching 100% after secondary procedures. The procedure is performed under general or spinal anaesthesia. Biopsy is usually not required if clinical and imaging findings are typical.

Radiologist Prometric Exam MCQ 2025 has been developed by our professional team; Rapid Access Guide is the best seller book for all Gulf Countries Exams since 2000. It has an array of all topics; thousands of updated questions with correct answers and explanations certainly will help you to pass the exam at the very first attempt.

Job Application – General overview

There are many hospitals and Clinics in gulf Countries that have a Radiology specialty. You need to pass the Prometric exams to apply for a job in gulf countries. Generally, the minimum experience required is three years. You can visit the respective Health Authority websites to find the eligibility criteria. Once you have passed the exam, you can contact them for a job interview—some of them recruiting directly, and many of them taking interviews online. The Prometric Application and Dataflow process is the most important factor while doing registration. Finishing it without any mistakes is very important, or it will lead to the rejection of the application. Dataflow takes typically 30 to 45 days to issue the report. You can proceed with the exam booking if it is a positive report. If it is a negative dataflow report, you can still contact them for re-evaluation. If it is a genuine reason, they will verify your certificate again. Meanwhile, Rapid Access Guide Publishers are providing the Prometric Exam booking and Dataflow process on behalf of you.

The below documents are required for proceeding with the exam booking process.

• A recent photograph (passport size)
• Copy of your valid passport.
• Your educational qualification certificates.
• Your experience certificates.
• Practice license or registration (From your Home / Working country)
• The Good Standing Certificate (GSC)
• A medical fitness test in case the applicant is aged 65 and above.

This MCQ-based Reviewer book is beneficial for the following Prometric exams.

1. DHA(DOH) Exam – Dubai Health Authority. (Dubai Prometric)
2. MOH Exam– Ministry of Health, Sharjah, UAE. (Sharjah Prometric)
3. DHCC Exam – Dubai Healthcare city.
4. HAAD Exam– Health Authority of Abu Dhabi. (Pearson VUE Test)
5. NHRA Exam – National Health Regulatory Authority, Bahrain.
6. QCHP Exam – Qatar Council for Healthcare Practitioners. (Qatar Prometric)
7. SMLE Exam – Saudi Medical Licensing Exam. (Saudi Prometric)
8. OMSB Exam – Oman Medical Specialty Board. (Oman Prometric)
9. KMLE – Kuwait Medical Licensing Exam (Kuwait Prometric)

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Radiologist MCQ Book Prometric Exam Guide 2025 from Rapid Access Guide is a comprehensive guide that covers all the essential information and strategies needed to ace the Prometric Exam. The guide includes a wide range of sample questions that have been carefully selected to help you prepare for the exam in the most effective way possible. With this guide, you will be able to identify your strengths and weaknesses, and work on improving your performance in the areas that need the most attention. Whether you are a first-time test taker or a seasoned pro, this guide will give you the tools you need to succeed on the Prometric Exam.